This type of examination is a multiple choice type of examination. Any similarity of the questions on the previous or present board examination is not an intention of the writer since the resources were purely for book references as well as from clinical experience that requires good critical skills and application of nursing process. The examination is composed of five (5) Major Subtopics:

  1. Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice
  2. Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child
  3. Care of the Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part A)
  4. Care of the Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part B),
  5. Care of the Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part C).

Pre-Board Examination for June & July 2012 NLE

This is a 60-item comprehensive examination. Read the questions properly and choose the best answer.

Nursing Practice 1. Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice

1.According to the Philhealth standards, a hospital must have Wellness clinics and health education activities such as the Diabetes Clinic. With a goal of health promotion, which of the following activities is the LEAST concern?

A. Diagnose Illness
B. Maintain optimal function of the patient
C. Minimize health care costs
D. Offer layman forums

2.With regards to illness prevention activities, which of the following activities help clients MOST?

A. Maintain maximum functions
B. Reduce risk factors
C. Promote habits related to health care
D. Manage stress

3.Which of the following nursing goals MOST of the time taken for granted when at the hospital?

A. Illness prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health maintenance
D. Rehabilitation

4.Health maintenance involves four characteristics in order to attain its goals. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A. Perception of health
B. Motivation to change behaviour or status
C. Compliance to the set goals
D. Self-control

5.Which of the following completes the four characteristics of normal health maintenance?

A. Support Group
B. Access to social and economic resources
C. Physical examination
D. Manage stress

6.Which of the following factors can hinder the access to health programs?

A. Stress
B. Poverty
C. Work
D. Family

7.Which of the following activities involves primary disease prevention?

A. Immunization
B. Breast Self-Examination
C. Well-child assessment
D. Hospital admission

8.Which of the following the goal of secondary disease prevention?

A. To include activities which geared towards high level of wellness
B. To reduce the risk factors present in an individual
C. To prevent disability and render intervention in the earlier stage
D. To ensure treatment and management of present illness

9.A cardiac patient came in to the hospital for his daily cardiac rehabilitation. This type of activity is included in the following:

A. Primary Disease Prevention
B. Secondary Disease Prevention
C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
D. All of the above

10.A hospice is a family-centered institution wherein the major goal of its existence is to provide comfort and lifestyle of clients in the terminal stage of illness. This is an example of:

A. A. Primary Disease Prevention
B. Secondary Disease Prevention
C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
D. All of the above

Situation. For No. 11 – 12. A survey must be done in order to know the factors of increase incidence of needle-stick injuries among nursing personnel in the hospital.

11.Which of the following research activities would a nurse researcher initially do?

A. Review related topics
B. Find out how many had needle stick injuries in the unit
C. Prepare a tool for collecting the data
D. Get a permission from the nursing service director

12.Which of the following statements contribute on the feasibility of the study?
A. Variables are diverse
B. Readability of the findings
C. Broad problems
D. Findings are inconsistent

Nursing Practice 2. Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child

Situation. Nos. 13 – 18. As a community health nurse, you need to apply COPAR in visiting communities in order to meet their needs.

13.On the first day of community immersion, which of the following activities involve the goal to get the whole set-up of the community?

A. Home visit
B. Mass information drive
C. Mother’s Class
D. Community health survey

14.As a community health nurse, you know that this is the best toll for community assessment:

A. Selective interview
B. Ocular survey
C. Conference
D. Home visit

15.How can you encourage active participation of the people in a new community?

A. Selective interview of clients
B. Observation
C. Community conference
D. Survey

16.When will be the best time to work with termination phase in a community immersion?

A. Pre-Interview Phase
B. Orientation Phase
C. Working Phase
D. Termination Phase

17.Community health nursing is a field of nursing which focuses on the:

A. Individual patient
B. Nursing community
C. Care of families
D. Health Education in the community

18.Community health has the following goals except:

A. Treatment of Illness
B. Health promotion
C. Disease prevention
D. Management of factors affecting health

Situation.19- 21. Ina, 5 years old was brought in the health center due to fever, vomiting, abdominal pain.

19.As a nurse on duty, what it your first priority?

A. Perform nursing procedures
B. Assess the patient
C. Plan for your care regimen
D. Identify nursing diagnosis

20.Upon assessment, you have found petechial rash on her extremities. What will be the next step?

A. Perform Tourniquet Test
B. Diagnose it as a Dengue case
C. Prescribe calamine lotion
D. Conclude that the Dengue is on the third stage

21.How would you perform Rumpel-Leede Capillary Fragility Test?

A. Inflate the cuff for 5 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the average of systolic and diastolic pressure.
B. Inflate the cuff for 3 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the average of systolic and diastolic pressure. Since the patient is a child.
C. Inflate the cuff for 2 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the average of systolic and diastolic pressure.
D. Inflate the cuff for 5 minutes within the pressure. The pressure is the sum of systolic and diastolic pressure.

22.After the Tourniquet Test, which of the following assessment would render a positive result leading to a suspected Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever?

A. If there is disseminated petechiae.
B. If there is more than 20 petechiae in one square inch.
C. If there is no change noted.
D. None of these.

23.The Department of Health implements Women’s Health and Safe Motherhood Project. Which of the following statements does not belong to its coverage?

A. Developing networks such as BEmoNC and CEmoNC
B. Allowing home deliveries
C. Family Planning
D. Facility-based deliveries

24. You are screening pregnant women in a rural health unit. Which of the following would require referral to a hospital?

A. Cephalic presentation
B. Adequate Pelvimetry
C. Breech Presentation
D. Gravida 4

Nursing Practice 3. Care of Clients with Physiological and Psychosocial Alterations

25.In a nurse-patient relationship there are two types of communication: verbal and non-verbal. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A. Health Teaching
B. Using patient’s folks as an interpreter
C. Verbal order of the physician
D. Signs

26. As a novice nurse, you are under the responsibility of your senior. Any mistake in the area you have made must be reported to the senior staff then to the head nurse or manager. This action is according to the principle of?

A. Line of command
B. Respondeat superior
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. None of the above

27.Res ipsa loquitor is apparent on the following cases, except:

A. Scalding the patient’s skin with hot water during a meal
B. Bed sores present on the patient’s back
C. Infiltrated IV site
D. Verbal Assault

28.You were assigned in a medical ward. Upon opening a chart, you have seen that patient A has insensible fluid loss of approximately 900 cc daily. This type of fluid loss can be due to:

A. Wound drainage
B. Gravity Drain
C. Urine output
D. Perspiration

29.Which of the following does not belong to the group of 4 A’s in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A. Amnesia
B. Apathy
C. Apraxia
D. Agnosia

30.Teresa, is a 54-year-old female with intratrochanteric fracture. After her surgical procedure, you have noticed that she is having some confusion. Which of the following would you suspect?

A. Lack of nourishment
B. Effect of anesthesia
C. Lack of air
D. Fat embolism

31.Which of the following conditions would allow a foreign nurse to practice in the Philippines?

A. Be employed in a state college
B. Visitation in a state college
C. Employed only in private hospitals
D. Medical or Surgical missions

32.Observing the principle of sterile technique, which of the following would not belong to the group?

A. Scrub nurse
B. Surgeon
C. Operating room technician
D. Anaesthetist

33.A compartment syndrome can be detected when the patient complains:

A. Sprain
B. Deep pain
C. Phantom pain
D. Radiating pain

34.In a head fracture, increase of intracranial pressure can be possible. Which of the following would be other reasons of increased intracranial pressure?

A. Localized abscess
B. Diabetes
C. Headache
D. Tonsillitis

35.A patient came in to a hospital with a history of suicidal attempts. At this time, he ingested 20 sleeping pills. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?

A. Assess for consciousness
B. Assess for vital signs
C. Insert NGT
D. Insert IV line

36.After a craniotomy, which of the following would be the nursing priority?

A. Prevention of infection
B. Preventing increase intracranial pressure
C. Preventing instability of posture
D. Preventing delirium

Nursing Practice 4. Care for Patients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (PartB)

Situation. 37- 42. You are assigned in the emergency room. A 70-year-old female came in complaining of dryness of throat and mouth. She is a known diabetic for 20 years with a strong familial history of diabetes mellitus. Upon assessment, her vital signs are: T= 37 C, PR- 90 RR- 24 BP- 140/80; CBG 570 mg/dl.

37.As a nurse, you know that the above initial assessment would reveal that the patient is:

A. Dehydrated
B. Decrease sensorium
C. Anxious
D. None of these

38.A venoclysis has been started with PNSS I litre x 150 cc/hr. Using a microset, how many drops per minute should the line be?

A. 50 drops per minute
B. 30 drops per minute
C. 150 drops per minute
D. 75 drops per minute

39.Aside from hydration, which of the following would be taken in order to check for Ketoacidosis?

A. Urine Culture and Sensitivity
B. Capillary Blood Glucose monitoring
C. Arterial Blood Gas
D. Pulse Oximeter

40.A urine ketone has been ordered. You know as a nurse that this test is taken in order to:

A. To check for pH level of urine
B. To check for presence of ketones in the urine
C. To check the quantity of urine being excreted
D. To check for the sugar levels in the urine

41.Which of the following will be your nursing action in terms of monitoring the hydration status of the patient?

A. Strictly monitor the intake and output
B. Restrict fluids
C. Increase oral fluid intake
D. Start an IV line with D5NSS

42.As a nurse, you are needed to formulate nursing diagnoses with Diabetic Ketoacidosis. These are the following correct statements except:

A. Fluid Volume Deficit related to vomiting
B. Altered Level of Consciousness related to acid-base balance
C. Altered Level of Consciousness related to ineffective breathing pattern
D. Altered Nutrition: Less than body requirements related to diabetes mellitus

43.As a nurse, you can insert in your documentation the following abbreviations which are widely understood by the nursing community except:


44.These are the following assessments needed for fluid status reporting in an adult patient, except:

A. Distended jugular vein
B. Peripheral perfusion
C. Mucous membrane
D. Sunken eyeballs

45.Upon opening the chart, you came across the ABG result of Patient Joe. These are following parameters: pH= 7.25; PaCO2=50; Bicarbonate= 26. This result reveal:

A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis

46.A plain cranial CT scan has been indicated STAT. When it comes to consent, since the patient is unconscious. Who will be the most liable for the consent?

A. His Grandmother
B. His mother
C. His 18-year-old wife
D. His attending physician

47.In the cranial CT scan, a 30 cc bleed has been noted on the temporal lobe. As a nurse, you know that this part of the brain is responsible for except:

A. Auditory sensation and perception
B. Speech
C. Emotions
D. Vision

48.Your hourly monitoring of vital signs show an elevating blood pressure. As a nurse you anticipate to give:

A. Clonidine
B. Apresoline
C. Mannitol 20%
D. Magnesium Sulfate

Nursing Practice 5. Care for Patients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations

Situation. 49- 52. You are assigned in a psychiatric ward for this rotation. Your first patient is a 26-year-old, female named Kathleen. She has a history of violent behaviour towards male patients and male nurses. She oftentimes had seen to sing love songs and bursts into laughter alternating with cry spells. She has 5 episodes of suicidal attempts after failing activities.

49.On the first day, which of the following statements would encourage Kathleen to respond elaborately?

A. “Hello Ms. Kathleen, what a fine day isn’t it?”
B. “Hello Ms. Kathleen, time for your new nurse to be talking to you.”
C. “Hello Ms. Kathleen, I am Nora, your new nurse. How are you?”
D. “Hello Ms. Kathleen, what beautiful voice you have.”

50.Ms. Kathleen wants to play volleyball. Knowing her history, these are the following would be the proper nursing actions except:

A. Include only female participants in the game
B. Invite other patients
C. Plan for a game that would make her satisfied with the result
D. Avoid challenging comments to her while at play

51.After the play, Ms. Kathleen must be taken into the Mess Hall for her dinner. Upon receiving her meal, she whispered to you “The cook is a witch. She is putting some ingredients in our meal to kill us slowly. That is the reason why I wash the fried chicken with water.” As a nurse, you know that this is an example of:

A. delusion of control
B. delusion of negation
C. delusion of persecution
D. delusion of reference

52. Ms. Kathleen starts to sing love songs. She then stressed out that “This song is really written for me.” This statement is:

A. Idea of imagination
B. Ideas of reference
C. Ideas of hallucination
D. Ideas of illusion

53.As a nurse, these are different therapy groups in which the nurse needs not to be a member. This is:

A. Art club
B. Alcoholics anonymous
C. Music therapy group
D. Horticulture group

54.Henry is a member of the group who controls the worthless talk of his co-worker Pearl. His role in the group is:

A. Yes member
B. Dictator
C. Blocker
D. Monopolizer

55.Which of these situations appropriately would describe culinary therapy?

A. Eva is getting ready for an afternoon walk to her garden wherein she plants orchids.
B. Jane is practicing a musical piece for a week now.
C. Pia is reading a cookbook and preparing the needed materials for the baking session that is about the begin in 30 minutes.
D. Paul finds sketching relaxing and rewarding

56.Mental retardation can be defined as:

A. Severe lag on memory
B. Lack of sensory abilities
C. Timidity on mental abilities
D. Sub average intellectual functioning

57. As a nurse, you are interested in things that can help you cope with stress and change. Which of the following is a bio-behaviour intervention?

A. Pharmacotherapy
B. Sclerotherapy
C. Meditation
D. None of the choices

58.Alyssa is prescribed to take Zyprexa. As a nurse you know that this is indicated for?

A. symptoms of self-destruction or impulses
B. Sleeping problems
C. Mood stabilizer
D. Eskalith

59.You have noticed Alyssa to be using alcohol whenever she moves. She rubs her palms with alcohol and wants to wash her wound with water for several times. The wound has been packed and no bleeding has been noted. This behaviour is:

A. Somatic
B. Neurotic
C. Psychotic
D. Normal

60.As a nurse, you know that Alyssa is in a crisis. Which of following would describe a duration of crisis?

A. 1-2 weeks
B. 3-4 weeks
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 1-2 months

1. Answer: A. Diagnose Illness
Health promotion activities involves the members in order to maximize their skills and knowledge. Its advantages to the members would include reduction of health care costs, reduce incidence of hospital admissions and offering layman forums wherein members can reach their optimal function.

2. Answer: B. Reduce risk factors
In health prevention, the risks are present but it can be reduced so that the tendency to get sick is also minimized. The rest of options were either part of health promotion activities or health maintenance.

3. Answer: B. Health Promotion
According to the World Health Organization, health promotion is the process of encouraging the people to heighten their control over and to improve their health status. It is geared towards a change of behaviour in order to attain optimal healthy functioning with the use of social and environmental interventions. However, this type of nursing goal often overlooked in hospitals.

4. Answer: D. Self-control
Self-control is also a part of the motivation to change behaviour or status. The other options were part of the major characteristics of normal health maintenance.

5. Answer: B. Access to social and economic resources
Health maintenance can be achieved when the economic resources are within reach. Health maintenance entails finances and relationships that must be made in order to see the change within the health-seeking behaviour of the individual.

6. Answer: B. Poverty
Poverty is the greatest threat to access to health programs. Increased incidence of preventable diseases, premature death and illnesses are linked to poverty which is a worldwide problem today.

7. Answer: A. Immunization
Primary disease prevention involves activities that would stop something in order to prevent worsening problem on the health. These activities involve regular exercise, stress management, nutrition class and immunization.

8. Answer: C. To prevent disability and render intervention in the earlier stage

9. Answer: C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
Tertiary Disease Prevention involves activities that can reduce the likelihood of having the similar disease state through rehabilitation and assistance to reach the optimal health status. 

10 .Answer: C. Tertiary Disease Prevention
Tertiary Disease Prevention may not promise that a person can return to its normal state. At some point this type of prevention may give comfort and palliative type of care such as in terminal cases in a form of hospices.

Situation. For No. 11 – 12. A survey must be done in order to know the factors of increase incidence of needle-stick injuries among nursing personnel in the hospital.

11. Answer: A. Review related topics
Since this is a survey type of study, a nurse researcher must first review related topics in order to provide a deeper knowledge of the subject of the study. Collecting data using  tool can be the next step and getting a permission to the hospital director will be next step when the study has been approved.

12. Answer: B. Readability of the findings
The findings must be understood so that purpose of the study can be complete. Other options were inconsistent to the feasibility of the study.

13. Answer: D. Community health survey
On the first day, a Community Health Nurse must be able to see the whole view of the community through a community health survey. This involves mapping the whole community in order to know the access roads and how many house will the nurse serve. In this type of ocular survey, the nurse may have an initial assessment of the whole community.

14. Answer: D. Home visit
Since you are situated in a community, a home visit is the best tool in assessing the community. This is an activity wherein the nurse goes on foot in order to visit each houses, place a survey on each house and provide an observation on the health status and living arrangement of the people.

15. Answer: C. Community conference
Conducting community conference can involve a lot of effort in the nurse’s part in order to get to know the people as a whole. Selecting a few clients can compromise the reliability of the facts taken. Observation can also do not supply the needed answers to questions since you really need to interact with the community.

16. Answer: B. Orientation Phase
In the orientation phase, a community health nurse must state the length of their stay in the community in order to provide the client a space to adjust with their presence and absence after the community immersion.

17. Answer: C. Care of families
With a premise, family is the basic unit of the society, the community health nursing is geared towards caring this small unit because this is the major driving force of the overall health status of the whole country.

18. Answer: A. Treatment of Illness
Treatment of Illness does not belong to the group. Community health is part of the paramedical or medical approach that is concerned on the present health situation of the whole community.

19. Answer: B. Assess the patient
Using the Nursing Process, assessment is the initial step upon meeting the patient. In this manner, you will be able to plan and perform nursing procedures using the nursing diagnosis that has been formulated.

20. Answer: A. Perform Tourniquet Test
A tourniquet test or otherwise known as Rumpel-Leede Capillary Fragility Test must be performed upon assessment of petechial rash in order to determine the hemorrhagic tendency of the patient. It does not conclude that the patient may have Dengue but an initial tool in making differential diagnosis. Diagnosing and prescribing medications are not responsibilities of a nurse.

21. Answer: A.
A blood pressure cuff is applied and inflated to a point within the average of systolic and diastolic pressure.

22. Answer: B.
The test is positive if there are 20 or more petechiae per square inch. This can be done by drawing an imaginary square on the cuff area.

23. Answer: B. Allowing home deliveries
It is now not allowed to have home deliveries due to the increasing maternal and child mortality. The program focused on the prevention of maternal complications even when a trained hilot or midwife will perform the delivery at home.

24. Answer: C. Breech Presentation
Breech presentation would need ceasarian section delivery since it is dangerous for the mother and the unborn child. Rural health units are only catering normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries with following criteria: cephalic presentation, adequate pelvimetry, gravida 4.

25. Answer: D. Signs
This is an example of nonverbal communication wherein the examiner can see or observe the changes on the body. Symptoms are complaints made by the patient. The other options are types of verbal communication.

26. Answer: B. Respondeat superior
This action is a premise to this principle. A senior staff must be knowledgeable of the novice nurse’s action so that he or she will be able to defend his or her unit together with his or her subordinates.

27. Answer: D. Verbal Assault
This does not have a physical evidence unless the victim will speak for himself or herself. The other options provide an evidence of the injury after the act has been done.

28. Answer: D. Perspiration
When the patient perspires, you cannot account the total amount of fluid being lost from the body. The skin is so vast for insensible fluid loss.
29. Answer: B. Apathy
This does not belong to the group. Apathy means being not concerned or emotionally attached to things or events. Amnesia is loss of memory, apraxia is inability to determine function or purpose of object. Agnosia is inability to recognize familiar objects.

30. Answer: D. Fat embolism
Fat embolism is caused by trauma on the long bones or burns. The most common cause of fat embolism would be fractures. This syndrome would manifest in a form of shortness of breath until delirium and even coma.

31. Answer: D. Medical or Surgical missions
Foreign nurses can practice the nursing profession during medical and surgical mission only. They could not be allowed to practice as nurse educator in a state college since it is a government owned school.

32.Answer:  C. Operating room technician
An operating room technician is in charge of the linens, the materials being needed as well as even the transport of patients. He is considered as not sterile.

33. Answer: B. Deep pain
Deep pain in a fracture, particularly in tibia or forearm fracture is a characteristic feature of compartment syndrome.

34. Answer: A. Localized abscess
Localized abscess can be a predisposing factor of increase intracranial pressure. The other options does not belong on the known predisposing factor of increased intracranial pressure.

35. Answer: A. Assess for consciousness
the initial nursing action would be focused on the establishment of the patient’s current state of consciousness. When the patient appears to be drowsy, this means that the incident may happen in a few minutes or hours only. The conscious state would be useful for further assessments and procedures.

36. Answer: B. Preventing increase intracranial pressure
In craniotomy, increased intracranial pressure is a common problem after the surgery. Nurses must be able to detect it through the blood pressure, as well as on the status of the patient.

37. Answer: A. Dehydrated
In Diabetic patients, a sign of dehydration can be elevated blood sugar levels. The complaint of dryness of throat and mouth is also a good sign of dehydration.

38. Answer: C. 150 drops per minute
A microset has a drip factor of 60cc per minute. Using this type of drip factor will also require to infuse 150 drops per minute in order to reach the required fluid replacement every hour.

39. Answer: C. Arterial Blood Gas
Arterial blood gas is taken during the increase of blood glucose in order to check for signs of Diabetic Ketoacidosis. The pH level of the blood is noted at this time.

40.  Answer: B. To check for presence of ketones in the urine
A urine ketone test is done for patients with heart problems, as well as diabetes. Since the blood sugar of the patient is more than 240 mg/dL, it is warranted to perform such test so that ketones might be seen if the body tries to compensate with lack of sugar or carbohydrates in the body.

41. Answer: A. Strictly monitor the intake and output
This is the correct nursing action when monitoring the hydration status of the patient. Restricting the fluids may pose a great danger in dehydration. Increasing oral fluid intake in this patient is not indicated, only sips of water are allowed. The route of hydration is through intravenous line. Starting an IV line with D5NSS will eventually increase the blood sugar level of the patient.

42. Answer: D. Altered Nutrition: Less than body requirements related to diabetes mellitus
This statement does not belong to the group since the related factor is a medical term. A related factor should include a medical diagnosis rather a pathophysiologic state or current factors only.

43. Answer: C. NOC
This medical jargon is not allowed in charting. The following three statements are well used throughout the documentation.

44. Answer: D. Sunken eyeballs
In an adult patient, the first three options would reveal the fluid status of the patient. Sunken eyeballs are used for pediatric patients only to assess the fluid status.

45. Answer: A. Respiratory Acidosis
This is an example of an acute respiratory acidosis. The pH level is less than 7.35; PaCO2 is more than 45 and the Bicarbonate level is normal (26).

46. Answer: B. His mother
His mother is the most liable person to perform the consent since she is of legal age and next to his kin. His wife is considered to be minor.

47. Answer: C. Smell
The part of the brain that is responsible for emotions is the hypothalamus . The temporal lobe is responsible for the interpretation of semantics in speech and vision. It is also the area wherein auditory functions are located.

48. Answer: C. Mannitol 20%
Mannitol 20% is ordered in order to reduce the intracranial pressure as evidenced by elevated blood pressure of the patient. Magnesium sulphate and other options are also indicated in order to decrease the blood pressure but with different predisposing factors.

49. Answer: C. “Hello Ms. Kathleen, I am Nora, your new nurse. How are you?”
This statement is the most appropriate opening line for the orientation phase. Introducing yourself as a nurse may convey authority in a none threatening way. Asking open ended questions can also encourage the patient to elaborate his or her feelings.

50. Answer: B. Invite other patients 
Inviting other patients, which means male or female is not a proper nursing action since she may attack the male participants. Taking in mind her previous actions towards the male counterpart, it is better to include females only in the game. Avoiding challenging remarks and frustrations can also minimize her crying spells and violent actions.

51. Answer: C. delusion of persecution
This type of delusion describes that a person is like being attacked, harassed, or cheated.

52. Answer: B. Ideas of reference
Ideas of reference has a content of holding a feeling that other people not related to him or her is talking or rendering something for him or her personally.

53. Answer: B. Alcoholics anonymous
This type of group includes only people who want to change their behaviour towards alcohol. The nurse need not to be an alcoholic in order to enter this group. He or she is only there in order to make sure that everything is well facilitated and organized.

54. Answer: C. blocker
As a blocker, you are the one who controls the situation when the talking of the topic is leading towards worthless topics.

55. Answer: C. Pia is reading a cookbook and preparing the needed materials for the baking session that is about the begin in 30 minutes.
Culinary therapy involves the utilization of cooking and baking as a form a therapy to its members.

56. Answer: D. Sub average intellectual functioning
Mental retardation is defined as a condition with impairment of sub average intellectual functioning that originates during the developmental period.

57. Answer: C. Meditation
Bio-behaviour treatment means that the intervention is focused on the wellness of the body using behavioural techniques.

58. Answer: A. symptoms of self-destruction or impulses
Antipsychotic drugs ease the dissociative symptoms such as self-destructing behaviours.

59. Answer: B. Neurotic
This type of behaviour is influenced by phobia and compulsions. The excessing rubbing of hands with alcohol is an example of compulsive behaviour.

60. Answer: C. 4-6 weeks
A crisis can be described as a stressing event that would occur between several days up to 4 to 6 weeks.


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